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Mock Test Series – Free Online Practice Tests for Competitive Preparation 

The Info Edu Story Mock Test is designed for competitive exam preparation with a total of 150 marks, carefully distributed across key subjects to give students a real exam-like experience. The test covers English (50 marks) focusing on grammar, comprehension, and vocabulary skills, General Knowledge and General Studies (50 marks) testing awareness of current affairs, history, geography, polity, and science, along with Quantitative Aptitude (25 marks) to assess mathematical and problem-solving ability, and Reasoning (25 marks) to measure logical and analytical thinking. With this balanced syllabus and marks distribution, the mock test ensures all-round practice and helps students strengthen their preparation for various competitive exams.

Online Mock Test Free | Practice Mock Test Series for Students & Competitive Exams

If you are preparing for competitive exams, then Online Free Mock Test Series for All Govt. Competitive Exams is the best way to boost your preparation. You can easily attempt an Online Mock Test free and download the Mock Test free practice online test series PDF for revision. Our platform also provides Online Mock Test free for students in both English and Bengali to make learning easier. You can access an Online Mock Test free PDF for daily practice and improve your speed and accuracy. Aspirants looking for Free online mock test for government jobs can find topic-wise sets and full-length papers here. Start practicing with our Mock Test online and get unlimited access to Free online test series. Take your preparation to the next level with our online test free platform designed especially for students and job seekers.

Free Online Competitive Exams Mock Test with Model Question Papers 

Q1. Find the correct Antonym of the quoted word.

Prasanna has a "gruff" voice.

A) Rougher

B) Rough

C) Mild

D) Milder

Q2. Find the correct Antonym of the quoted word.

Don’t write "lengthy" essays.

A) Shorten

B) Long

C) Verbose

D) Compact

Q3. Fill in the blanks with gerunds.

Suganya is not capable of ____ hard work.

A) Do

B) Doing

C) To Be Doing

D) To Be Done

Q4. Fill in the blanks with gerunds.

On Sundays I go _____.

A) Fish

B) To Fish

C) Fishes

D) Fishing

Q5. Fill in the blanks with correct Homophones.

My friend is a ____ officer.

A) Navval

B) Navel

C) Naval

D) None of These

Q6. Fill in the blanks with correct Homophones.

The ____ of the cats are sharp.

A) Paws

B) Pauses

C) Pause

D) None of These

Q7. Identify the error in the sentence:

The electrician / is / do / writing work.

A) The Electrician

B) Is

C) Do

D) Writing Work

Q8. Identify the error in the sentence:

The house / has been / built / in 2012.

A) The House

B) Has Been

C) Built

D) In 2012

Q9. Identify the correct sentence.

Gold is a precious metal.

A) Negative

B) Complex

C) Simple

D) Compound

Q10. Identify the correct sentence.

If you work hard, you will succeed in life.

A) Simple

B) Negative

C) Complex

D) Compound

Q11. Identify the correct sentence.

Can you help me with a thousand rupees?

A) Interrogative

B) Negative

C) Complex

D) Compound

Q12. Identify the correct sentence.

I can stay here only for a few hours.

A) Simple

B) Negative

C) Complex

D) Compound

Q13. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word.

Try _____ as many languages as possible.

A) Learnt

B) To Learn

C) Learn

D) Learning

Q14. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word.

Try _____ the work before sunset.

A) Complete

B) Completion

C) Completing

D) To Complete

Q15. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word.

You are ill and so I advise you ____ a doctor.

A) See

B) To See

C) Seeing

D) To Saw

Q16. Change the Noun into Verb.

Application →

A) Applicant

B) Apply

C) Appliance

D) Applicable

Q17. Change the Noun into Verb.

Movement →

A) Move

B) Movable

C) Movingly

D) Movably

Q18. Select the odd one out.

A) Canteen

B) Dancer

C) Stage

D) Makeup

Q19. Select the odd one out.

A) Judge

B) Chamber

C) Tennis

D) Lawyer

Q20. Fill in the blanks.

I want the book ____ in a week.

A) Writes

B) Written

C) Is Written

D) Was Written

Q21. Fill in the blanks.

On seeing the police, the thief started _____.

A) Run

B) Runs

C) Running

D) Its Running

Q22. Select the correct plural form.

Fiction →

A) Fiction

B) Fictions

C) Fictionia

D) Fictionese

Q23. Select the correct plural form.

Folly →

A) Folies

B) Follies

C) Follyies

D) Follys

Q24. Select the proper prefix.

Spoken →

A) In-

B) De-

C) Out-

D) Dis-

Q25. Select the proper prefix.

Advantage →

A) De-

B) Re-

C) Dis-

D) Ub-

Q26. Fill in the blanks.

I shall meet you ____ 6 o’clock.

A) By

B) At

C) In

D) During

Q27. Fill in the blanks.

Suganya writes ____ her left hand.

A) On

B) With

C) In

D) By

Q28. Select the proper suffix.

Magic →

A) En

B) Tan

C) Ist

D) Ty

Q29. Select the proper suffix.

Hinder →

A) Er

B) Ance

C) Ment

D) Ation

Q30. Give the closest meaning of the quoted word.

He lives in a "spacious" house.

A) Small

B) Large

C) Cramped

D) Limited

Q31. Give the closest meaning of the quoted word.

Raja has a "fragile" frame.

A) Weak

B) Weaker

C) Strong

D) Soundless

Q32. Identify the type of sentence.

Mahatma Gandhi was born in Porbandar.

A) Simple Past

B) Simple Present

C) Simple Future

D) Past Continuous

Q33. Identify the type of sentence.

I shall visit the book fair tomorrow.

A) Simple Past

B) Simple Present

C) Simple Future

D) Future Continuous

Q34. Choose the correct preposition.

Good sleep is necessary _____ good health.

A) From

B) For

C) Of

D) At

Q35. Choose the correct preposition.

______ the whole, I like the book very much.

A) From

B) On

C) At

D) In

Q36. Select the correct Question Tag.

Let us attend the party.

A) Shall Not We?

B) Shall We?

C) Shan’t We?

D) None of These

Q37. Select the correct Question Tag.

We have plenty of time.

A) Do We?

B) Hasn’t We?

C) Have We?

D) Haven’t We?

Q38. Archeology as a profession has the objective of acquiring knowledge through excavation. Ancient Artifacts are part of our global culture.

What is part of our Global culture?

A) Archeology

B) Excavation

C) Ancient Artifacts

D) Knowledge

Q39. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archeologists recently uncovered 2000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard, even royal impressions known as melekh have been found.

Royal impressions are known as:

A) Cyprus

B) Impressions

C) Melekh

D) Small Jugs

Q40. The first public museums were accessible often to middle and upper class as was the British Museum in 1759. The first public museum was opened in Paris in 1793.

The British Museum was opened in:

A) 1793

B) 1759

C) 1760

D) 1761

Q41. There are many types of museum like art museum, war museum and so on. The International Council of Museums reported that there are more than 55,000 museums in 202 countries.

How many museums are there around the world?

A) 55,000

B) More than 55,000

C) Few

D) Only Art Museums

Q42. Mohenjo-Daro means "mound of the Dead" and is an ancient Indus Valley Civilization City. The site was discovered in 1920. It is more than 5000 years old.

Mohenjo-Daro was discovered in:

A) 5000 B.C.

B) 1920

C) 1950

D) 4000 B.C.

Q43. Pick the correct single word substitute:

The Government wing responsible for making Rules.

A) Judiciary

B) Executive

C) Court

D) Legislature

Q44. Pick the correct single word substitute:

Life history of a person written by that person.

A) Autobiography

B) Topography

C) Flexography

D) Biography

Q45. Pick the correct single word substitute:

A speech delivered without any previous preparation.

A) Elocution

B) Dialogue

C) Extempore

D) Dialect

Q46. Replace the quoted text with the correct Idiom:

The world today is "facing an unpleasant situation" because of the pandemic disease.

A) Thrown Out of Gear

B) Harps On The Same String

C) Like A Fish Out Of Water

D) A Bitter Spill

Q47. Replace the quoted text with the correct Idiom:

A large crowd was "anticipated" for the art exhibition by the organisers, but it did not happen.

A) Break Down

B) A House of Cards

C) On The Cards

D) Keep Up With

Q48. Replace the quoted text with the correct Idiom:

Currently, the economies of the world are "biting the bullet" as major companies have affected its works due to the virus outbreak.

A) Having War With Others

B) Dwelling On The Same Page

C) Doing Things In The Wrong Order

D) Facing Unpleasant Situation

Q49. Replace the quoted text with the correct Idiom:

The "bone of contention" between the two brothers is the ancestral property of their forefathers.

A) Reason Of Brotherhood

B) Point Of Argument

C) Reason Of Quarrel

D) Pretence Of Love

Q50. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition:

The hosts were happy ____ our visit _____ their home.

A) On, To

B) For, In

C) With, In

D) With, To

Q51. The oldest Veda is:

A) Atharva Veda

B) Rigveda

C) Yajurveda

D) Samveda

Q52. Which one of the following is the longest glacier of India?

A) Siachen

B) Zemu

C) Kolhai

D) Pindari

Q53. Shifting cultivation is not practised in which of the following states?

A) Assam

B) West Bengal

C) Odisha

D) Andhra Pradesh

Q54. The longest cell in animals is:

A) Nerve Cell

B) Blood Cell

C) Liver Cell

D) Muscle Cell

Q55. Solar energy is produced by the process of:

A) Fusion

B) Fission

C) Explosion

D) Contraction

Q56. Directive Principles of State Policy are:

A) Justiciable

B) Non-Justiciable

C) Some provisions are Justiciable

D) None of the Above

Q57. Panchayat Samity is an organisation associated with:

A) Single Village

B) Couple of Villages

C) Block

D) Zilla

Q58. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India established?

A) 1935

B) 1940

C) 1947

D) 1949

Q59. Which of the following is the source of the Damodar River?

A) Panchet Hill

B) Joranda Falls

C) Rajmahal Hills

D) Rajrappa Falls

Q61. The total population of West Bengal during 2011 was:

A) 80 Million

B) 90 Million

C) 100 Million

D) 110 Million

Q62. Imphal is the capital of:

A) Arunachal Pradesh

B) Manipur

C) Nagaland

D) Tripura

Q63. The National Wildlife Action Plan was adopted by India in:

A) 1963

B) 1973

C) 1983

D) 1993

Q64. The earlier name of WTO was:

A) UNCTAD

B) GATT

C) UNIDO

D) OECD

Q65. Who was the founder of Slave Dynasty?

A) Iltutmish

B) Balban

C) Nasiruddin

D) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Q66. Who was called the "Grand Old Man of India"?

A) Dadabhai Naoroji

B) Jamsetji Tata

C) Surendranath Banerji

D) C. Rajagopalachari

Q67. East Calcutta Wetlands has been declared as a:

A) Ramsar Site

B) Biosphere Reserve

C) Reserve Forest

D) National Park

Q68. The process by which the gas comes out of an LPG cylinder is called:

A) Diffusion

B) Effusion

C) Pressure

D) Ventilation

Q69. The age of retirement of the Supreme Court judges is:

A) 70 Years

B) 65 Years

C) 62 Years

D) 60 Years

Q70. Galwan Valley is situated in:

A) Himachal Pradesh

B) Sikkim

C) Ladakh

D) Uttarakhand

Q71. In West Bengal the region north of the Ganga is known as:

A) Tanr

B) Bhabar

C) Barind

D) Rarh

Q72. Literacy rate is lowest in ______ district of West Bengal.

A) Bankura

B) Uttar Dinajpur

C) Purulia

D) Malda

Q73. The following vitamin is most easily destroyed by heat and air:

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin B

C) Vitamin C

D) Vitamin D

Q74. The heat of the Sun reaches us by:

A) Conduction

B) Convection

C) Radiation

D) None of the Above

Q75. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?

A) President

B) Vice President

C) Prime Minister

D) Home Minister

Q76. Number of Panchayat Samities in West Bengal at present is:

A) 341

B) 344

C) 333

D) 334

Q77. Name the international body which was the predecessor of the UNO for maintaining world peace.

A) League of Nations

B) Union of Nation States

C) International Union of Nations

D) None of the Above

Q78. The remains of Vijayanagar Empire can be found in:

A) Bijapur

B) Golconda

C) Hampi

D) Baroda

Q79. The line demarcating the boundary between India and China in the north-eastern sector is called:

A) Radcliffe Line

B) Durand Line

C) McMohan Line

D) Siegfried Line

Q81. The major forest product in India is:

A) Timber

B) Honey

C) Tobacco

D) None of These

Q82. "Do or Die" was the slogan of the _______ Movement.

A) Non-Cooperation

B) Khilafat

C) Civil Disobedience

D) Quit India

Q83. Bauxite extracted in Madhya Pradesh is used for the production of:

A) Bronze

B) Aluminium

C) Copper

D) Mica

Q84. A viral disease is:

A) Cancer

B) Leukaemia

C) Typhoid

D) Yellow Fever

Q85. Education, under the Indian Constitution, is included in:

A) The Union List

B) State List

C) The Concurrent List

D) None of the Above

Q86. The largest source of India’s Gross Domestic Product is:

A) Agriculture & Allied Activities

B) Foreign Trade

C) Service Sector

D) Manufacturing Industry

Q88. Cinchona cultivation is mainly practised in:

A) Mungpoo and Monsong

B) Darjeeling

C) Kalimpong

D) Buxar

Q89. Afforestation prevents:

A) Soil Erosion

B) Pollution

C) Food Shortage

D) All of the Above

Q90. Sulh-i-Kul was a policy introduced by:

A) Akbar

B) Aurangzeb

C) Jahandar Shah

D) Muhammad Shah

Q91. What is "URBI"?

A) A Submarine

B) A Tunnel Boring Machine

C) An Army Tank

D) None of These

Q92. "Indigo Revolt" in Bengal took place in the year:

A) 1859

B) 1860

C) 1863

D) 1869

Q93. Which one of the following is the junction point of Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats?

A) Javadi Hills

B) Anaimalai Hills

C) Nilgiri Hills

D) Shevaroy Hills

Q94. Pineapple is grown on an extensive scale at:

A) Terai Plain

B) Shillong Plateau

C) Tripura Highland

D) Uttaranchal

Q95. Golden Quadrilateral is a:

A) National Highway Project

B) Gold Auction Centre

C) National Highway Development Project

D) Railway Development Project

Q96. West Bengal has the highest density of population in India having:

A) 767 per Km²

B) 1029 per Km²

C) 904 per Km²

D) 747 per Km²

Q97. What is the chief source of political power in India?

A) The People

B) The Constitution

C) The Parliament

D) None of These

Q98. West Bengal’s own industrial policy was declared in the year:

A) 1982

B) 1994

C) 1995

D) 1996

Q100. The electric appliances in a house are connected:

A) In Series

B) In Parallel

C) Either in Series or in Parallel

D) Both in Series and in Parallel 

Q-101. The ratio of the numbers of boys and girls of a school with 504 students is 13:11. What will be the new ratio if 12 more girls are admitted?

A) 91:81

B) 81:91

C) 9:10

D) 10:9

Q-102. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is:

A) 12

B) 16

C) 24

D) 48

Q-103. Salary of a person is first increased by 20%, then it is decreased by 20%. Change in his salary is:

A) 4% Decreased

B) 4% Increased

C) 8% Decreased

D) 20% Increased

Q-104. The sum of the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers is 680 and the L.C.M. is 84 times the H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 56, the other is:

A) 84

B) 12

C) 8

D) 96

Q-105. When a number is divided by 893, the remainder is 193. What will be the remainder when it is divided by 47?

A) 3

B) 5

C) 25

D) 33

Q-106. A sum of money invested at compound interest doubles itself in 6 years. At the same rate of interest, it will amount to eight times of itself in:

A) 15 Years

B) 12 Years

C) 18 Years

D) 10 Years

Q-107. If 20% of A = 30% of B = ⅕ of C, then A : B : C is:

A) 2:3:16

B) 3:2:16

C) 10:15:18

D) 15:10:18

Q-108. Rs. 6,000 becomes Rs. 7,200 in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate becomes 1.5 times of itself, the amount of the same principal in 5 years will be:

A) Rs. 8,000

B) Rs. 8,250

C) Rs. 9,250

D) Rs. 9,000

Q-109. Simple interest on Rs. 500 for 4 years at 6.25% per annum is equal to the simple interest on Rs. 400 at 5% per annum for a certain period of time. The period of time is:

A) 4 Years

B) 5 Years

C) 6 Years

D) 8 Years

Q-110. If a sum of money at simple interest doubles in 12 years, the rate of interest per annum is:

A) 16⅔%

B) 0.075

C) 8⅓%

D) 0.1

Q-111. A moving train crosses a man standing on a platform and a bridge 300 metres long in 10 seconds and 25 seconds respectively. What will be the time taken by the train to cross a platform 200 metres long?

A) 16⅔ Seconds

B) 18 Seconds

C) 20 Seconds

D) 22 Seconds

Q-112. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:4. If their LCM is 240, the smaller of the two numbers is:

A) 100

B) 80

C) 60

D) 50

Q-113. If 60% of A = ¾ of B, then A : B is:

A) 9:20

B) 20:9

C) 4:5

D) 5:4

Q-114. If A’s income is 50% less than that of B’s, then B’s income is what percent more than that of A?

A) 125%

B) 100%

C) 75%

D) 50%

Q-115. If Rs. 1000 is divided between A and B in the ratio 3:2, then A will receive:

A) Rs. 400

B) Rs. 500

C) Rs. 600

D) Rs. 800

Q-116. The perimeters of two squares are 24 cm and 32 cm. The perimeter (in cm) of a third square equal in area to the sum of the areas of these squares is:

A) 45

B) 40

C) 32

D) 48

Q-117. The base radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2:3 and their heights are in the ratio 5:3. The ratio of their volumes is:

A) 27:20

B) 20:27

C) 9:4

D) 4:9

Q-118. Three solid metallic spheres of diameters 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are melted and recast into a new solid sphere. The diameter of the new sphere is:

A) 4 cm

B) 6 cm

C) 8 cm

D) 12 cm

Q-119. A wire, when bent in the form of a square, encloses a region having area 121 cm². If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, then the area of the circle is:

A) 144 cm²

B) 180 cm²

C) 154 cm²

D) 176 cm²

Q-120. If the area of a circle inscribed in a square is 9π cm², then the area of the square is:

A) 24 cm²

B) 30 cm²

C) 36 cm²

D) 81 cm²

Q-121. A solid metallic sphere of radius 8 cm is melted to form 64 equal small solid spheres. The ratio of the surface area of this sphere to that of a small sphere is:

A) 4:1

B) 1:16

C) 16:1

D) 1:4

Q-122. A copper wire is bent in the form of a square with an area of 121 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, the radius (Take π = 22/7) is:

A) 7

B) 10

C) 11

D) 14

Q-123. The areas of three consecutive faces of a cuboid are 12 cm², 20 cm² and 15 cm². Then the volume (in cm³) of the cuboid is:

A) 3600

B) 100

C) 80

D) 60

Q-124. The wheel of a motor car makes 1000 revolutions in moving 440 m. The diameter (in metre) of the wheel is:

A) 0.44

B) 0.14

C) 0.24

D) 0.34

Q-125. If the length of the diagonal AC of a square ABCD is 5.2 cm, then the area of the square is:

A) 15.12 sq. cm

B) 13.52 sq. cm

C) 12.62 sq. cm

D) 10.00 sq. cm

Q-126. If in a certain code, SWITCH is written as CQFZE, then:

A) Bared

B) Braed

C) Bread

D) Brade

Q-127. In a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO. Which word will be coded as LKUMB?

A) Mmxqg

B) Mlvnc

C) Kjvla

D) Mjvlc

Q-128. In a certain language, MACHINE is coded as LBBIHOD. Which word would be coded as SLTMFNB?

A) Rkslema

B) Tkulgmc

C) Rmsneoa

D) Tmungoc

Q-129. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded?

A) 1677199

B) 16717209

C) 1677209

D) 9207716

Q-130. In a certain code, DEAF is written as 3587 and FILE is written as 7465. How is IDEL written in that code?

A) 43568

B) 63548

C) 48536

D) 43586

Q-131. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?

A) 5279431

B) 5978213

C) 8251896

D) 8543691

Q-132. If 'bangle' is called 'cassette’, ‘cassette’ is called 'table’, 'table' is called 'game’ and 'game' is called 'cupboard’, then which is played in the tape recorder?

A) Table

B) Cassette

C) Bangle

D) Cupboard

Q-133. If 'blue' means 'green', 'green' means 'white', 'white' means 'yellow', 'yellow' means 'black', 'black' means 'red' and 'red' means 'brown', then what is the colour of milk?

A) Black

B) Green

C) Brown

D) Yellow

Q-134. In a certain code, 'il be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sikhee' means 'red flowers', 'pee mithee' means 'flowers are vegetables'. How is 'red' written in that code?

A) Hee

B) Sik

C) Be

D) None of These

Q-135. In a certain code, 'il be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sikhee' means 'red flowers', 'pee mithee' means 'flowers are vegetables'. How is 'roses' written in that code?

A) Il

B) Pee

C) Be

D) None of These

Q-136. In a certain code, 'il be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sikhee' means 'red flowers', 'pee mithee' means 'flowers are vegetables'. How is 'vegetables are red flowers' written in this code?

A) Pee Sikmithee

B) Sik Pee Hee Be

C) Il Sikmithee

D) None of These

Q-137. In a certain coding system, '816321' means 'the brown dog frightened the cat'; '64851' means 'the frightened cat ran away'; '7621' means 'the cat was brown'; '341' means 'the dog ran'. What is the code for 'the dog was frightened'?

A) 3548

B) 8263

C) 8731

D) 5463

Q-138. In a certain coding system, '816321' means 'the brown dog frightened the cat'; '64851' means 'the frightened cat ran away'; '7621' means 'the cat was brown'; '341' means 'the dog ran'. What is the code for 'frightened'?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 6

D) 8

Q-139. In a certain coding system, '816321' means 'the brown dog frightened the cat'; '64851' means 'the frightened cat ran away'; '7621' means 'the cat was brown'; '341' means 'the dog ran'. What is the code for 'away'?

A) 1

B) 5

C) 6

D) 7

Q-140. In a certain coding system, '816321' means 'the brown dog frightened the cat'; '64851' means 'the frightened cat ran away'; '7621' means 'the cat was brown'; '341' means 'the dog ran'. What is the code for 'brown'?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

Q-141. In a family, there are six members P, Q, R, S, T and U. P and Q are a married couple, P being the male member. S is the only son of R, who is the brother of P. T is the sister of S. Q is the daughter-in-law of U, whose husband has died. How is U related to P?

A) Mother

B) Sister-in-Law

C) Sister

D) Mother-in-Law

Q-142. In the same family setup, how is T related to R?

A) Sister

B) Daughter

C) Cousin

D) Mother

Q-143. In the same family setup, how is R related to Q?

A) Brother

B) Brother-in-Law

C) Nephew

D) Son-in-Law

Q-144. In the same family setup, how many male members are there in the family?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Five

Q-145. In the same family setup, how is U related to R?

A) Mother-in-Law

B) Sister-in-Law

C) Aunt

D) Mother

Q-146. Four men P, Q, R and S are friendly with four girls K, L, M and N. K and M are friends. R's girlfriend does not like K and M. L does not care for R. Q's girlfriend is friendly with K. K does not like P. Who is P's girlfriend?

A) K

B) L

C) M

D) N

Q-147. With whom is K friendly?

A) P

B) Q

C) R

D) S

Q-148. Who is the boyfriend of N?

A) R

B) S

C) Q

D) P

Q-149. Who does not like K and M?

A) P

B) N

C) S

D) R

Q-150. A man is facing towards South. He turns 135° in the anti-clockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

A) North-East

B) North-West

C) South-East

D) South-West